Posted: September 4th, 2023

NUR 631 Advanced Physiology And Pathophysiology Study Guide

NUR 631 Advanced Physiology And Pathophysiology Study Guide

1. Describe the type of lesions found in psoriasis & seborrheic and actinic keratosis.
2. Describe the skin lesions found in Varicella (chickenpox) and herpes zoster (shingles).
3. Describe the pathogenetic mechanism of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).
4. Describe Hirschsprung’s disease.
5. Define marasmus and kwashiorkor.
6. Define deafferentation pain.
7. Describe myofascial pain syndrome.
8. Describe neuropathic pain.
9. Describe urticaria as seen in an allergic reaction.
10. What is a varicocele?
11. Describe the pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis.
12. Describe Raynaud’s disease.
13. What medical term is used to identify an inflammatory disorder of the skin that is often considered synonymous with dermatitis and characterized by pruritus with lesions that have an indistinct border? (Atopic Dermatitis/Eczema)
14. What is a painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis called? (Spermatocele)
15. Describe intestinal malrotation.
16. What is the medical term for a fungal infection of the nail plate? (Onychomycosis)

Content Questions

17. What type of necrosis is associated with wet gangrene? (liquefactive necrosis)
18. After ovulation, the uterine endometrial cells divide under the influence of estrogen. This process is an example of hormonal proliferation.
19. Removal of part of the liver leads to the remaining liver cells undergoing compensatory hypertrophy.
20. Why is insulin used to treat hyperkalemia? (Insulin helps shift potassium into the cells, lowering serum potassium levels)
21. What 3 substances influence the calcium and phosphate balance in the body? (Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and Vitamin D)
22. What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases? (50% risk for each pregnancy)
23. What cancer does human herpes virus (HHV) 8 cause? (Kaposi sarcoma)
24. The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women? (Breast and ovarian cancer)
25. How is chronic myelogenous leukemia diagnosed? (Detection of the Philadelphia chromosome)
26. How does obesity act as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus? (Obesity leads to insulin resistance)
27. What does hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in? (Increased oncogene expression and potential cancer development)
28. Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages? (Complement system)
29. What causes meconium ileus? (Obstruction of the intestine due to thick, sticky meconium in infants with cystic fibrosis)
30. Which cell is the body’s primary defense against parasitic invasion? (Eosinophils)
31. What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? (Passive immunity)
32. Which antibody initially indicates a typical primary immune response? (IgM)
33. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? (Mast cells)
34. Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease? (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus – SLE)
35. List 4 disorders which are considered autoimmune. (Rheumatoid arthritis, multiple sclerosis, lupus, type 1 diabetes)
36. Which organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection? (Chlamydia trachomatis)
37. What does stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla cause secretion of? (Epinephrine and norepinephrine)
38. What is the effect of increased secretions of epinephrine, glucagon, and growth hormone? (Increased blood glucose levels)
39. What disorder results from the collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis? (Hydrocele)
40. What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? (Fatigue)
41. Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease? (Human Papillomavirus – HPV)
42. What is the function of arachnoid villi? (To absorb cerebrospinal fluid into the venous system)
43. What provides the collateral blood flow to the brain? (Circle of Willis)
44. Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)? (Cranial nerve III – Oculomotor nerve)
45. What is the central component of the pathogenic model of multiple sclerosis? (Autoimmune destruction of myelin sheath in the central nervous system)
46. What hematologic disorder is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome? (Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia – CML)
47. Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) synthesized, and where does it act? (Synthesized in the hypothalamus and acts on the collecting ducts of the kidneys)
48. What is diabetes insipidus the result of? (ADH deficiency or resistance)
49. Renal failure is the most common cause of which type of hyperparathyroidism? (Secondary hyperparathyroidism)
50. What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle? (Surge in luteinizing hormone – LH)
51. What condition results from the rotation of a testis, which twists blood vessels of the spermatic cord? (Testicular torsion)
52. Identify the functions of the following cranial nerves:

• Cranial nerve I (Olfactory): Sense of smell
• Cranial nerve II (Optic): Vision
• Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor): Eye movement and pupil constriction
• Cranial nerve IV (Trochlear): Eye movement
• Cranial nerve V (Trigeminal): Sensation of the face and chewing
• Cranial nerve VI (Abducens): Eye movement
• Cranial nerve VII (Facial): Facial expression and taste
• Cranial nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear): Hearing and balance
• Cranial nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal): Swallowing and taste
• Cranial nerve X (Vagus): Autonomic functions of the organs
• Cranial nerve XI (Accessory): Neck and shoulder movements
• Cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal): Tongue movement

53. Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer? (Human Papillomavirus – HPV)
54. The risk of which cancer is greater if the man has a history of cryptorchidism? (Testicular cancer)
55. Which age group should be targeted for testicular cancer education and screening? (Young males, especially those between 15 and 35 years old)
56. Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis? (Treponema pallidum)
57. Which is a characteristic lesion of secondary syphilis? (Rash on palms and soles of feet)
58. Which skin disorder results in an elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter? (Papule)
59. What does celiac sprue cause? (Malabsorption of nutrients due to gluten intolerance)
60. Which substance is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure? (Erythropoietin)
61. After a person has a subtotal gastrectomy for chronic gastritis, which type of anemia will result? (Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia)
62. When considering hemolytic anemia, why does jaundice occur? (Due to increased bilirubin from the breakdown of red blood cells)
63. What type of cancer could HPV cause? (Cervical cancer)
64. Hemophilia A is believed to be what type of inherited disorder? (X-linked recessive disorder)
65. Which type of cancer could Helicobacter pylori cause? (Stomach cancer)
66. In which type of pleural effusion does the fluid become watery and diffuse out of the capillaries as a result of increased blood pressure or decreased capillary oncotic pressure? (Transudative pleural effusion)
67. Which hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct? (Antidiuretic hormone – ADH)
68. With which medical condition is meconium ileus often associated? (Cystic fibrosis)
69. What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture? (Pathologic fracture)
70. Considering the pathophysiologic process of osteoporosis, which hormone exerts antiapoptotic effects on osteoblasts but proapoptotic effects on osteoclasts? (Estrogen)
71. Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated rate, beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone? (Paget’s disease)
72. Which medical condition, as a chronic inflammatory joint disease, is characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints? (Ankylosing spondylitis)
73. People with gout are at high risk for which co-morbid condition? (Kidney stones)
74. An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children? (Vitamin D)
75. Which virus is associated with infectious mononucleosis? (Epstein-Barr virus – EBV)
76. Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscle fibers to the basement membrane? (Dystrophin)
77. What is the most common malignant bone tumor diagnosed during childhood? (Osteosarcoma)
78. Chickenpox (varicella) may be reactivated years later by which disorder? (Herpes zoster – shingles)
79. The staff member of a crowded day care center is a source for which bacterial infection? (Streptococcal pharyngitis)
80. Which of the following disorders has a mode of inheritance similar to hemophilia A? (Hemophilia B)
81. Which organism could cause stomach cancer? (Helicobacter pylori)
82. List 3 types/conditions of arteritis. (Giant cell arteritis, Takayasu arteritis, Polyarteritis nodosa)
83. List 3 conditions jaundice could be attributed to. (Hemolytic anemia, liver disease, biliary obstruction)
84. What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? (Surfactant deficiency)
85. What is the most common cause of uncomplicated urinary tract infections? (Escherichia coli – E. coli)
86. List 4 conditions that prerenal injury from poor perfusion can result from. (Hypovolemia, heart failure, sepsis, renal artery stenosis)
87. In immunoglobulin G (IgG) nephropathies such as glomerulonephritis, IgG is deposited in which location? (Glomerular basement membrane)
88. By what mechanism does intussusception cause an intestinal obstruction? (Telescoping of one segment of the intestine into another, causing constriction and obstruction)

Clinical Scenarios

89. A patient presents with vomiting a coffee-ground looking substance; fatigue, postural hypotension; new onset systolic murmur; and cool, pale peripheries. Lab findings: Low hemoglobin and hematocrit, positive fecal occult blood test, low blood pressure. (Possible gastrointestinal bleeding and anemia)
90. A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. (Hypoglycemia)
91. After a partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty, clinical manifestations that include increased pulse, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness are the results of dumping syndrome. (Rapid emptying of gastric contents into the small intestine)
92. Klinefelter’s syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality with an XXY outcome. This means the patient has an extra X chromosome (47, XXY) and presents with male hypogonadism, gynecomastia, and reduced fertility.
93. On review of a patient’s X-ray, you discover punched-out lesions. This indicates bone destruction and could be seen in multiple myeloma.
94. Provide two examples of nutrition-related anemia. Iron-deficiency anemia and megaloblastic anemia (e.g., caused by vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency). CBC findings would show decreased hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell count, as well as changes in the mean corpuscular volume (MCV).
95. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance? Right-sided heart failure.
96. Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously triggered with Tetralogy of Fallot to relieve hypoxic spells? Squatting, which increases systemic vascular resistance and reduces the right-to-left shunting of blood.
97. What are the TLC, FEV1, and V/Q for silicosis (… normal). TLC (Total Lung Capacity) and FEV1 (Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second) may be reduced, while V/Q (Ventilation/Perfusion ratio) is variable.
98. A patient presents with right ventricular hypertrophy seen as a right-axis deviation on the EKG and a loud systolic murmur heard at the left sternal border. The cause of these findings is pulmonary stenosis.

Final Exam Study Guide (Spring Session)

Cellular biology and Alterations Genetics Fluid and Electrolytes and Acid-base Pulmonology Cardiovascular Endocrinology Neurology Gastroenterology Nephrology Urology Musculoskeletal Integumentary Oncology Hematology Infection Reproductive NUR 631 Final Exam Study Guide

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